Analysis Problem of the Day 15

Today’s problem is Problem 4 on the UCLA Fall 2024 Analysis Qual.

Problem 4: Let f_n \in L^1(\mathbb{R}^d) be a sequence of nonnegative functions with \int f_n dx = 1 for all n and \int_K f_n dx \to 0 for all compact K \subset \mathbb{R}^d \setminus \{0\}. Show that there exist 0 \leq \alpha \leq \beta \leq 1 such that for all g \in C_0(\mathbb{R}^d), one has

    \[\liminf_{n \to \infty} \int f_n g dx = \alpha g(0), \quad \limsup_{n \to \infty} \int f_n g dx = \beta g(0).\]


Solution: Intuitively, if the L^1 “mass” of f_n eventually vanishes on every compact set avoiding zero, then the mass has to either escape to 0 or to infinity. With that in mind, we proceed directly. Define

    \[\alpha = \lim_{r \to 0} \liminf_{n \to \infty}\int_{|x|<r} f_ndx.\]

Notice that for each r, the limit infimum is well-defined, and is strictly decreasing as r \to 0, so this limit is well-defined. Likewise, define

    \[\beta = \lim_{r \to 0} \limsup_{n \to \infty} \int_{|x|<r} f_n dx.\]

Clearly, 0 \leq \alpha \leq \beta \leq 1. I claim that \alpha and \beta satisfy the identities given in the problem. Indeed, for 0 \leq g \in C_0(\mathbb{R}^d), we first consider the splitting

    \[\int f_n g dx = \int_{|x|<r}f_n g dx+\int_{|x|\geq r} f_n g dx.\]

I claim that the limit as n \to \infty of the second term exists and equals 0. Indeed, pick K \subset B(0,r)^c compact and large enough so that |g|<\epsilon on K^c. Then,

    \[\int_{|x| \geq r} f_n g dx\right \leq \int_K f_n g dx + \int_{K^c} f_n g dx < \epsilon \|g\|_\infty + \epsilon\]

as n \to \infty since g is bounded, \int_K f_n \to 0, and \int f_n dx = 1 for all n. Then, taking the limit infimum as n \to \infty gets rid of the second term in the sum.

Finally, for small enough r, by continuity of g there exists small enough \epsilon >0 such that

    \[(g(0)-\epsilon) \liminf_{n \to \infty} \int_{|x| < r} f_n dx \leq \liminf_{n \to \infty} \int_{|x|<r} f_n g dx \leq (g(0)+\epsilon) \liminf_{n \to \infty} \int f_n dx,\]

so taking the limit as r \to 0 yields

    \[\liminf_{n \to \infty} \int f_n g dx = \lim_{r \to 0} \liminf_{n \to \infty} \int_{|x|<r} f_n g dx = \alpha g(0).\]

An analogous statement holds for the limit supremum.

Remark: The originally presented proof of this fact was incorrect, as it made the incorrect claim that the map h \to \liminf_{n \to \infty} \int f_n h dx is a linear functional, which it is not (as it is only subadditive).

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