Today’s problem appeared as Problem 2 on the UCLA Spring 2022 Analysis Qual:
Problem 2: Recall that a function
is called 1-Lipschitz if
for all
Let
be an arbitrary family of 1-Lipschitz functions
and let
a) Show that
is Lebesgue measurable.
b) Show that
need not be Borel measurable.
Solution: a) Notice that
is the union of the hypographs of all
In particular, for fixed
belongs to the union if it is less than
for some function
Motivated by this, we note that
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b) Note that if
is a non-Borel measurable subset of
(say,
is the Vitali set), then we may construct a family
such that
where
is as above, and
is the disjoint union of a Borel measurable set
and
Since the inclusion map
is continuous, it follows that
is not Borel measurable as a subset of
either, as otherwise so would be its preimage
Then,
which is a contradiction since the Borel
-algebra is closed under complements and intersections and
is not Borel measurable. Finally, to construct such a family
it suffices to take 1-Lipschitz functions of the form
and let
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